Fund taxation in 2018 and "fiktive Veräußerung"

42 posts in this topic

Hi PandaMunich,

Thanks very much for your very informative answer. Much appreciated. I will do as you recommend and contact a Steuerberater.

Could I ask you about private Rentenversicherung / pension insurance / superannuation (not quite sure what it is called in English).

I have a Swedish Rentenversicherung to which I paid contributions between 1985 and 1988 only. It has not been paid out. The Rentenversicherung usually increases in value most years, the insurance company pays a tax on that return and my Rentenversicherung policy pays a part of that tax. I guess that is why I currently do not pay any direct tax to the Swedish tax office, but I will be paying tax on the payout when it starts. Do I need to include the Rentenversicherung in the German tax return? Suppose I do.

Regards,

Larrit

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If you can get at the money in that Swedish pension insurance before pension age, then yes.

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Hi all,

 

I have a question related to this regarding filling out my 2018 return using steuergo.de.

 

  • I had some foreign-domiciled funds that I sold in 2018. From my understanding of fiktive Veräußerung, I entered an estimated value as of 31.12.2017 as a part of my declaration for these. This all seems fine
  • However, I also have a new set of non-DE (but EU) domiciled ETFs that I am investing in since last year, that I intend to continue paying into. Now in SteuerGo, the section including prices, sales and fiktive Veräußerung only becomes available if I declare that I sold some shares in 2018. I did not. In fact, it's not even possible to declare the current value of the fund. Therefore no way to show how much tax I might have to pay (should the Finanzamt be interested)

 

So, I thought that the idea of fiktive Veräußerung was to ensure that the Finanzamt got its ounce of flesh for the gains in my funds during 2018? Therefore the question is, does the fictive sale only apply if you did make sales in the funds in 2018? Or, is there an error in SteuerGo's interface, and I should be declaring the value of my holding funds, even if I didn't sell anything?

 

Hope someone can help!

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Sat down to do my taxes this year and saw suddenly that ANLAGE KAP had a couple of children in the meantime. Nasty surprise! Thank you PandaMunich for your detailed, thoughtful and well-structured post on the matter from the previous page. That shed quite a bit of light on the new ANLAGE-INV in particular. 

 

Would you mind answering a quick follow-up question for me? Does the Finanzamt consider capital gain distributions from an investment fund "laufende Erträge" as it does with dividends, or do these need to go in Anlage KAP like in previous years? I didn't sell off anything in 2018.

 

As a Fachfremder, I feel I could interpret it either way.

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13 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

Distributions from funds not held in a German bank are declared in Anlage KAP-INV.

 

Instructions for filling in the new forms (in German): https://www.steuern.de/steuererklaerung-anlage-kap.html

 

Hi @PandaMunich, Thank you very much for all the explanation about funds, particularly the one in the first page of this thread. 

 

There is one point related to the topic above that is not fully clear to me yet and maybe you (or anyone else) can provide some further insight ( I have tried several webpages, but depending on they way I translate them, they seem to say different things).

 

I have funds (all accumulating, so no dividends, etc) in a foreign bank (in the EU) that I opened and contributed to before moving to Germany.

 

- For those funds, does the Vorabpauschale (new in 2018) apply?

- If so, hows is the Vorabpauschale calculated? Does the investor (me) need to perform the calculation? (For sure the foreign bank is not going to compute the German taxes).

 

- In general, if there are no capital gains (I do not sell any shares and fund appreciation is < Basiszins) do I need to inform in my Steuererklärung that I "have" these investment funds. (If so, I was not able to find the right field for that in the forms).

 

Thank you very much!

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20 hours ago, Willybroch said:

For those funds, does the Vorabpauschale (new in 2018) apply?

 

Yes.

 

20 hours ago, Willybroch said:

- If so, hows is the Vorabpauschale calculated? 

 

https://www.google.com/search?q=Vorabpauschale+site%3Atoytowngermany.com

 

20 hours ago, Willybroch said:

Does the investor (me) need to perform the calculation? (For sure the foreign bank is not going to compute the German taxes).

 

No, the Finanzamt will calculate it, based on the data you enter into the 2018 form Anlage KAP-INV.

 

However, you're too early for the Vorabpauschale itself.

The state, in its infinite wisdom, decided that the Vorabpauschale for 2018, which is an imaginary gain dependent on:

  1. how much your funds increased from 1. January to 31. December 2018 in value and
  2. a base interest rate (= Basiszinssatz) and
  3. a factor dependent on what type of fund you own,

is not taxed on 31.12.2018, as would be logical, but on the first working day of 2019, according to §18 (3) InvStG: https://www.gesetze-im-internet.de/invstg_2018/__18.html

 

Which means that it doesn't appear at all in your 2018 tax return, but only in your 2019 tax return.

 

20 hours ago, Willybroch said:

- In general, if there are no capital gains (I do not sell any shares and fund appreciation is < Basiszins) do I need to inform in my Steuererklärung that I "have" these investment funds. (If so, I was not able to find the right field for that in the forms).

 

Anlage KAP-INV:  https://www.smartsteuer.de/online/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/Anlage_KAP_INV_2018.pdf

 

Please also see: 

https://www.toytowngermany.com/forum/topic/375653-fund-taxation-in-2018-and-fiktive-veräußerung/?do=findComment&comment=3747149

 

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23 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

 

Yes.

 

 

https://www.google.com/search?q=Vorabpauschale+site%3Atoytowngermany.com

 

 

No, the Finanzamt will calculate it, based on the data you enter into the 2018 form Anlage KAP-INV.

 

However, you're too early for the Vorabpauschale itself.

The state, in its infinite wisdom, decided that the Vorabpauschale for 2018, which is an imaginary gain dependent on:

  1. how much your funds increased from 1. January to 31. December 2018 in value and
  2. a base interest rate (= Basiszinssatz) and
  3. a factor dependent on what type of fund you own,

is not taxed on 31.12.2018, as would be logical, but on the first working day of 2019, according to §18 (3) InvStG: https://www.gesetze-im-internet.de/invstg_2018/__18.html

 

Which means that it doesn't appear at all in your 2018 tax return, but only in your 2019 tax return.

 

 

Anlage KAP-INV:  https://www.smartsteuer.de/online/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/Anlage_KAP_INV_2018.pdf

 

Please also see: 

https://www.toytowngermany.com/forum/topic/375653-fund-taxation-in-2018-and-fiktive-veräußerung/?do=findComment&comment=3747149

 

Thanks for all the answers. I am starting to understand the procedure, but it seems to be a pain in the ass when the funds are in banks abroad (I was really hoping for an exception here), since different tax rules may apply (see below). I have the following follow-up questions.

 

I know these questions probably should be targeted to an Steuerberater (particularly 2nd and 3rd) but the tax return I expect is ~0€ (no special situation) and I am trying to avoid to spend several hundred € for "nothing"(the money in these funds is not much). Of course, if that is the only way to get this right I will do it. Thank you in advance and feel free to dismiss them, since they seem quite boring now that I look at them ;)

  1. In my case there was no selling of shares in 2018, so when I try to complete KAP-INV (in ELSTER online) the form requires me to input Anzahl der veräußerten Anteile (Number of shares sold) and  Veräußerungspreis (Sale price). If i left them blank, it throws an error if only completing Zeile 40 (fiktiver Veräußerungsgewinn zum 31.12.2017).
  2. It happens that the Spanish funds law allows transfers between funds without realizing the gains (no taxable event until you get the shares to euros). All the banks do this automatically, and I have done so several times before moving to Germany. Then, the funds I have now (2) are composed by a funny combination of lots from other funds. Which one would be the fictional Gain here in your opinion? To me, it should be the accumulated gain. Otherwise, whenever I sell the fund (i.e. in 2019), the gain in the Spanish bank certificate will be reflecting the accumulated gain, but this will be mismatching with the information I had provided to the Finanzamt (Fictive Winn 31.12.2017 + gain until 2019). Secondary problem here is that the Spanish bank does not provide this "accumulated gain" until you sell the funds, but I guess I can calculate myself this gain on 2019.
  3. (Bonus Question?) I have also a retirement fund in Spain that does not even have an ISIN (it has a Spanish retirement fund number). The money in this fund cannot be touched until I retire or one of the following exceptions: I get unemployed for long time, or 10 years  pass (Funny Spanish rule here, since it sort-of-destroys the "I retire" clause). Lets say that I want to declare it as a normal fund to play it safe, since it seems that I cannot include it as retirement fund from the German point of view. In this case, Do you think I can just include the "Spanish Retirement fund Number" in the ISIN field.? (ELSTER online already complains that the ISIN is incorrect if I do so).
  4. If I still need a professional for these topics, do you think a Lohnsteuerhilfeverein may be able to support these topics? Or will a Steuerberater be necessary?

Note extending the point 2). If I try to follow the form completely and I use a different column for each of the lots with different buy prices, with the mentioned ramifications and combinations, I am sure that the tax return will be a nightmare both for me and the FInanzamt. (Just 2 partial transfers between funds can be leading to +12 entries there) :S

 

Thanks again! (Also for many other messages across the forum, I find them always super helpful.

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1 hour ago, Willybroch said:
  • In my case there was no selling of shares in 2018, so when I try to complete KAP-INV (in ELSTER online) the form requires me to input Anzahl der veräußerten Anteile (Number of shares sold) and  Veräußerungspreis (Sale price). If i left them blank, it throws an error if only completing Zeile 40 (fiktiver Veräußerungsgewinn zum 31.12.2017).
  • It happens that the Spanish funds law allows transfers between funds without realizing the gains (no taxable event until you get the shares to euros). All the banks do this automatically, and I have done so several times before moving to Germany. Then, the funds I have now (2) are composed by a funny combination of lots from other funds. Which one would be the fictional Gain here in your opinion? To me, it should be the accumulated gain. Otherwise, whenever I sell the fund (i.e. in 2019), the gain in the Spanish bank certificate will be reflecting the accumulated gain, but this will be mismatching with the information I had provided to the Finanzamt (Fictive Winn 31.12.2017 + gain until 2019). Secondary problem here is that the Spanish bank does not provide this "accumulated gain" until you sell the funds, but I guess I can calculate myself this gain on 2019.

 

Unfortunately, according to German tax law, exchanging one fund by another counts as a sale of the "old" fund and an ensuing purchase of the "new" fund.

So you do have a sale, if such an exchange took place after you moved to Germany.

 

Don't forget to keep track of these purchase prices of those "new" funds, you will need them again when these funds are exchanged again...

 

1 hour ago, Willybroch said:

Note extending the point 2). If I try to follow the form completely and I use a different column for each of the lots with different buy prices, with the mentioned ramifications and combinations, I am sure that the tax return will be a nightmare both for me and the FInanzamt. (Just 2 partial transfers between funds can be leading to +12 entries there) :S

 

Unfortunately, that's what you will have to do.

 

1 hour ago, Willybroch said:

(Bonus Question?) I have also a retirement fund in Spain that does not even have an ISIN (it has a Spanish retirement fund number). The money in this fund cannot be touched until I retire or one of the following exceptions: I get unemployed for long time, or 10 years  pass (Funny Spanish rule here, since it sort-of-destroys the "I retire" clause). Lets say that I want to declare it as a normal fund to play it safe, since it seems that I cannot include it as retirement fund from the German point of view. In this case, Do you think I can just include the "Spanish Retirement fund Number" in the ISIN field.? (ELSTER online already complains that the ISIN is incorrect if I do so).

 

Just do a tax return on paper, then you can write anything you want into the box.

 

1 hour ago, Willybroch said:

If I still need a professional for these topics, do you think a Lohnsteuerhilfeverein may be able to support these topics? Or will a Steuerberater be necessary?

 

If you're an employee, a Lohnsteuerhilfeverein with an employee that understands your Spanish documentation (that may be a bit harder to find) would do for you.

 

 

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1 hour ago, PandaMunich said:

Unfortunately, according to German tax law, exchanging one fund by another counts as a sale of the "old" fund and an ensuing purchase of the "new" fund.

So you do have a sale, if such an exchange took place after you moved to Germany.

 

Don't forget to keep track of these purchase prices of those "new" funds, you will need them again when these funds are exchanged again...

 

In general I have everything well documented (for the last 4 years), but I may be missing some paperwork for part of the capital in these funds, since a small part of it entered the, lets call it "fund circuit" even before the Euro era. (Spanish pesetas).

 

The key point here for me is that all the exchanges of funds happened before moving to Germany, so no problem on that side. The question is:

- Should the fiktiver Veräußerungsgewinn reflect only the fictive winnings of the "last" fund? (example below, not real numbers, in case it helps).

  1. 15.05.2015 Buy 100€ of Fund A
  2.           2016 Fund A appreciates to 200€
  3. 15.05.2017 Exchange 200€ of Fund A for 200€ of Fund B (No tax deducted, Spanish Law)
  4. 01.10.2017 Move to Germany *
  5. 31.12.2017 Value of Fund B is 300€

Option A: When I moved to Germany, I had only 200€ of Fund B, so one option would be to declare the fictive gain as 100€. (The easy option in my opinion)

Option B: Because that money was not taxed in previous sells/buys, maybe I should enter a fictive gain as 200€. 

 

My fear with Option A is that when if I sell fund B for example @ 350€, according to the information provided to the Finanzamt, I would have had a gain of 150€, but the Spanish bank papers would state 250€ gain, since previous gains had not been taxed.

 

On the other hand, if the Finanzamt only want this information for the Vorabpauschale, to me it looks like that this would make no difference as long as I use the same criteria every year. 

 

* I did 2017 tax return through an Steuerberater and he did not include this movement, I understand that because I was only part-time in Germany and the "tax event" happened before moving. I hope that was correct.

 

Thanks!

 

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12 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

Don't forget to keep track of these purchase prices of those "new" funds, you will need them again when these funds are exchanged again...

I´m dealing with a similiar problem in an account inherited from my mother and am being told by my late mom´s lawyer that I´m expected to produce proof of the cost of purchase to contest withholding tax of more than 50% of the proceeds from dissolution of an intransparent US fund which was bought about 20 years ago (and for which I couldn´t find any documentation as the oldest account statements are from 2004). Can the Finanzamt really demand this given that before 2009 there was no reason to keep such documentation as any capital gains realized after more than 1 year weren´t taxable anyway?

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24 minutes ago, jeba said:

intransparent US fund

 

That's the keyword here.

The Finanzamt never liked those funds and has always had punitive rules with regards to them, they were never classed as "normal" funds.

 

24 minutes ago, jeba said:

I´m expected to produce proof of the cost of purchase to contest withholding tax of more than 50% of the proceeds from dissolution of an intransparent US fund which was bought about 20 years ago (and for which I couldn´t find any documentation as the oldest account statements are from 2004). Can the Finanzamt really demand this

 

So yes, they can - unless you would like taking the Finanzamt to court to try to convince them otherwise.

For going to court, please consult a Fachanwalt für Steuerrecht.

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10 hours ago, Willybroch said:

In general I have everything well documented (for the last 4 years), but I may be missing some paperwork for part of the capital in these funds, since a small part of it entered the, lets call it "fund circuit" even before the Euro era. (Spanish pesetas).

 

The key point here for me is that all the exchanges of funds happened before moving to Germany, so no problem on that side. The question is:

- Should the fiktiver Veräußerungsgewinn reflect only the fictive winnings of the "last" fund? (example below, not real numbers, in case it helps).

  1. 15.05.2015 Buy 100€ of Fund A
  2.           2016 Fund A appreciates to 200€
  3. 15.05.2017 Exchange 200€ of Fund A for 200€ of Fund B (No tax deducted, Spanish Law)
  4. 01.10.2017 Move to Germany *
  5. 31.12.2017 Value of Fund B is 300€

Option A: When I moved to Germany, I had only 200€ of Fund B, so one option would be to declare the fictive gain as 100€. (The easy option in my opinion)

Option B: Because that money was not taxed in previous sells/buys, maybe I should enter a fictive gain as 200€. 

 

My fear with Option A is that when if I sell fund B for example @ 350€, according to the information provided to the Finanzamt, I would have had a gain of 150€, but the Spanish bank papers would state 250€ gain, since previous gains had not been taxed.

 

On the other hand, if the Finanzamt only want this information for the Vorabpauschale, to me it looks like that this would make no difference as long as I use the same criteria every year. 

 

OK, I think we have to step back one step.

 

If you didn't sell (and an exchange counts as a sale) a fund that was held in a non-German bank in 2018, nor received dividend from it, then you do not have anything to declare in the 2018 Anlage KAP-INV.

Though from 2018 there will be an imaginary gain (= Vorabpauschale) for 2018 to declare, in their infinite wisdom, they decided to push the imaginary influx of that imaginary 2018 gain to 2019 (= to 2.1.2019, since that was the first working day of 2019, as laid down by §18 (3) InvStG).

So you will have to fill in all the details that they need to tax that imaginary 2018 gain (= Vorabpauschale) into the Anlage KAP-INV 2019.

We do not know yet what this 2019 tax form will look like.

 

If you did sell (or exchange) a fund that was held in a non-German bank in 2018, you have to fill in Anlage KAP-INV 2018.

For your example, since you first bought (through exchange!) this "new" fund on 15.05.2017 (i.e. after 31.12.2008) at 200€, you have a fictive capital gain on 31.12.2017 of 100€ (300€ value on 31.12.2017, minus purchase price 200€), which you declare in line 40 of the Anlage KAP-INV. Then you take that fictive capital gain, and also fill it in on page 1, depending on what type of fund it was into line 11, 14, 17, 20 or 23.

The dividends that you received for 2018 from that fund held in a non-German bank are declared in lines 4 to 8 of Anlage KAP-INV 2018https://www.smartsteuer.de/online/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/Anlage_KAP_INV_2018.pdf

 

*************************************************************************

 

Further reading on Anlage KAP-INV, from the Bayerisches Landesamt für Steuern (in German, click on chapter "3.10 Anlage KAP-INV" on the left):  https://datenbank.nwb.de/Dokument/Anzeigen/772095/

 

10 hours ago, Willybroch said:

 

  1. 15.05.2015 Buy 100€ of Fund A
  2.           2016 Fund A appreciates to 200€
  3. 15.05.2017 Exchange 200€ of Fund A for 200€ of Fund B (No tax deducted, Spanish Law)
  4. 01.10.2017 Move to Germany *
  5. 31.12.2017 Value of Fund B is 300€

...

* I did 2017 tax return through an Steuerberater and he did not include this movement, I understand that because I was only part-time in Germany and the "tax event" happened before moving. I hope that was correct.

 

Actually, he probably did, by including it not as taxable income but as progression income, you just didn't notice it, because if your total capital income 2017 was below 801€ (or 1,602€) if you're married, no income tax is due.

Or maybe because you didn't tell him about that "exchange of funds", so he had no way of knowing about it?

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5 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

For going to court, please consult a Fachanwalt für Steuerrecht.

That´s what I did. But to be honest I´m less impressed with her service than yours.

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7 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

Further reading on Anlage KAP-INV, from the Bayerisches Landesamt für Steuern (in German, click on chapter "3.10 Anlage KAP-INV" on the left):  https://datenbank.nwb.de/Dokument/Anzeigen/772095/

 

Really useful link! Thanks!

 

7 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

OK, I think we have to step back one step.

 

If you didn't sell (and an exchange counts as a sale) a fund that was held in a non-German bank in 2018, nor received dividend from it, then you do not have anything to declare in the 2018 Anlage KAP-INV.

Though from 2018 there will be an imaginary gain (= Vorabpauschale) for 2018 to declare, in their infinite wisdom, they decided to push the imaginary influx of that imaginary 2018 gain to 2019 (= to 2.1.2019, since that was the first working day of 2019, as laid down by §18 (3) InvStG).

So you will have to fill in all the details that they need to tax that imaginary 2018 gain (= Vorabpauschale) into the Anlage KAP-INV 2019.

We do not know yet what this 2019 tax form will look like.

 

If you did sell (or exchange) a fund that was held in a non-German bank in 2018, you have to fill in Anlage KAP-INV 2018.

For your example, since you first bought (through exchange!) this "new" fund on 15.05.2017 (i.e. after 31.12.2008) at 200€, you have a fictive capital gain on 31.12.2017 of 100€ (300€ value on 31.12.2017, minus purchase price 200€), which you declare in line 40 of the Anlage KAP-INV. Then you take that fictive capital gain, and also fill it in on page 1, depending on what type of fund it was into line 11, 14, 17, 20 or 23.

The dividends that you received for 2018 from that fund held in a non-German bank are declared in lines 4 to 8 of Anlage KAP-INV 2018

https://www.smartsteuer.de/online/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/Anlage_KAP_INV_2018.pdf

 

Ok, now I think I begin to understand. I was basically confused by the fact that they ask for this fictive capital gain for 31.12.2017 and I thought incorrectly that they were asking it in order to get a "starting point" for the Vorabpauschale calculation. If I got it correctly now, they ask for this in order to "tax" differently gains that happened before and after the new law came into play. Therefore they only need this if shares were actually sold. 

 

Because in my case, there were no sales (not normal ones and neither through exchange) in 2018, there is no need for me to provide any information at all for 2018.

 

Then speculating, I guess that we should expect in the tax return 2019 (for investment funds abroad):

  • If shares are sold in 2019 and were bought before 01.01.2018, again a field to input the fictive gain @ 31.12.2017 (to be able to compute part of the gains according to old law and part according to the new).
  • Some additional fields to compute the Vorabpauschale for the year 2018, like you are saying (that, fingers crossed, are independent of gains before 01.01.2018)

The 2 points above are pure speculation because like you said, we don't know how is going to look like, but if they don't ask for this information, then I don't understand why they are asking for the fictive gain @ 31.12.2017 now only if there was a sale.

 

7 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

Or maybe because you didn't tell him about that "exchange of funds", so he had no way of knowing about it?

 

I will contact the Steuerberater and clarify this topic, maybe an amendment is due. But, if the sell (through exchange) did happen before moving to Germany (but in the same year), do I still need to pay taxes in Germany for that? I understood (maybe incorrectly) that my unbeschränkter Steuerpflicht started on the date I moved to Germany (as stated on the tax return of that year).

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8 minutes ago, Willybroch said:

I will contact the Steuerberater and clarify this topic, maybe an amendment is due. But, if the sell (through exchange) did happen before moving to Germany (but in the same year), do I still need to pay taxes in Germany for that? I understood (maybe incorrectly) that my unbeschränkter Steuerpflicht started on the date I moved to Germany (as stated on the tax return of that year).

 

Please read:

 

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3 hours ago, PandaMunich said:

 

Please read:

 

Ok, so it needs to be also accounted for the Progressionsvorbehalt. I was not sure if capital gains were accounted the same as "normal" income . Thanks for all the answers, I will stop bothering now :).

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Hi all,

 

Thanks for the useful information given in this topic so far. I think I now have enough information to fill in the Anlage KAP and Anlage KAP-INV myself. I just have a couple of questions to tie the loose ends:

  • I have a bought and sold a couple of shares via a foreign (Dutch) broker over 2018. If I understand correctly, I need to sum all capital losses / gains and fill in Zeile 14-18 of the normal Anlage KAP. 
  • I have also invested in one foreign Aktienfonds and a couple of ETF's. Do I need to fill the details / gains /  for each funds/ETF separately on Zeile 31-41 of the Anlage KAP-INV? So if I have more than 3 it will not fit on the Anlage anymore and I have to use a second Anlage KAP-INV form? It however says: "Summe der Eintragungen in Zeile 40 fuer jede Fondsart bilden und in die Zeilen 11, 14, 17, 20 und/oder 23 der ersten Anlage KAP-INV uebertragen" which means I can have multiple KAP-INV's but I need to put the sum of all funds/ETF's on the first page of the first Anlage KAP-INV?

So all in all, I fill one normal Anlage KAP and multiple Anlage KAP-INV's?

And I sum everything up from the shares up to calculate the "In Anspruch genommener Sparer-Pauschbertrag" in Zeile 12 of the Anlage KAP, and everything from the ETF's/Funds for the "In Anspruch genommener Sparer-Pauschbertrag" in Zeile 13?

 

And its probably wise to attach an Excel sheet to the Steuererklaerung with all calculated gains/losses and transactions overviews from the broker (although they are all in Dutch..)?

 

Thanks in advance!

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Hello everybody,

 

I've managed to slog my way through the KAP-INV thanks to the useful information provided here, but I have a nagging doubt about line 24, "Zwischengewinn aus fiktiver Veräußerung zum 31.12.2017 i. S. d. § 56 Abs. 3 InvStG". The closest thing to a helpful explanation I've been able to find is in the link https://datenbank.nwb.de/Dokument/Anzeigen/772095/  provided by PandaMunich (MVP of this forum, in my humble opinion), and as best as I can tell, it seems to be dividends from a fund that have not been re-invested in the case of an accumulating fund. Luckily, it seems to only become an issue when selling funds, and I only had one minor sale so I'm going to go with "0" as this year's Zwischengewinn until I learn more.

Since I'm dealing with US funds from a US bank, this information is not provided, which makes it just that much harder to nail down what these Zwischengewinne are exactly. Does anybody have any helpful insights?  

 

 

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