jeba

"...A Tesla whistleblower has leaked 100GB of data to the German outlet Handelsblatt containing thousands of customer complaints that raise serious concerns about the safety of Tesla’s Full Self-Driving (FSD) features. The complaints, which were reported across the US, Europe, and Asia, span from 2015 to March 2022. During this period, Handelsblatt says Tesla customers reported over 2,400 self-acceleration issues and 1,500 braking problems, including 139 reports of “unintentional emergency braking” and 383 reports of “phantom stops” from false collision warnings. Some of the incidents mentioned by Handelsblatt include descriptions of how cars “suddenly brake or accelerate abruptly.” While some drivers safely gained control of their vehicle, Handelsblatt says others “ended up in a ditch, hit walls or crashed into oncoming vehicles.” ..." From: https://www.theverge.com/2023/5/25/23737972/tesla-whistleblower-leak-fsd-complaints-self-driving

Managed to post by deactivating scripts, but can´t use the proper quote function. Therefore, I´ll do it this way: On 5/15/2023, 12:13:pm, PandaMunich said: "...This sentence shows me that you haven't understood what a form S1 does. ..." Correct, the only personal experience I had with it was that I needed it to get rid of the obligation to pay into the Cypriot public health system. Therefore, and because of this thread, I wondered whether there is an EU regulation stipulating that someone residing in 2 EU countries (like my daughter, who is renting a flat in Germany she has never set foot in yet, just to have the option of returning to Germany with her dogs anytime) has to join the public health system of only one of those countries (in which case registering at her place in Germany wouldn´t trigger an obligation to pay for German public health insurance). My guess was that the S1 form was (among other purposes) meant to prove that you´re enrolled in the public health system of the country which issued it (apart from the right to join the host country´s public health system).

Unrelated: Can you legally reside in Germany without having BAFIN-approved health insurance if you have a S1 from another EU member state?

What does commission have to do with it? Remember that public health insurance isn't allowed to make a profit. You won't pay any more because of it. Doctors used to get a small fee (it used to be €20) though because of the increase of efficiency that is hoped for and which would result in savings for your KK.

Yes, that's the biggest risk in my view for someone who has to pay their bills in €€. Unless Dems and Reps can't agree on the debt ceiling issue (which I'm sure they will).

Exchange rare risk!

My guess is she made an official record of your confession to have driven without a license and that this is now causing a problem.  Couldn't it be that you misunderstood her question and therefore, you answered "yes" to her question when the answer should actually have been "no, of course not - I'd never drive without a valid permit" ? If so, this is what I'd tell them.

My layman's guess, based merely on what I remember from previous TT threads, is that being married to a German will only help you getting a residence permit if you want to move to Germany in order to stay with your spouse. Therefore,  I think that your husband would need to register in Germany and you'd have to live at his place of registration.  That would obviously come with all the relevant implications for him that come with registration in Germany ( tax, health insurance, pension fund contributions etc).

My wife took only 1 or 2 months of parental leave, as far as I remember, and never actively applied for having it added to her pension account. Maybe I did that once she had died (which was when I was still on parental leave) to increase my widower´s pension and therefore, I had to waive my own claim. I can´t remember details as this was more than 20 years ago. But I will contact the DRV to have it checked. Thank you very much for making me aware of that I may have a claim.

Thanks, that´s interesting. Still, as far as I remember, I had to waive my claim to have those times considered for my own pension when I applied for my widower´s pension (otherwise it would have been lower). Can´t remember details though. Maybe it has been incorporated into the calculation of my widower´s pension already. I find it difficult to prove that you haven´t worked. You could e.g. falsely claim to not have worked even though you were working without leaving any records in the DRV database.(e.g. abroad).

No, at least not towards the then BfA (now DRV) only towards my employer, in oder to be granted parental leave. Problem is that I don't have any documentation from back then as I dumped it when I left Germany, since I didn't think I'd ever have a claim. Also, I'm not sure whether the full 60 months are counting, since my time as "Beamter auf Zeit" had expired during those 60 months and I had decided not to return to work but rather have it expire (instead of having it extended by the time I had taken parental leave) to receive a final lump sum payment. So, the time after expiration of employment might not count as parental leave, because there was no employment anymore to take leave from.  

I had e.g. those examples in mind where someone has only pension months for raising children but no more than those. I raised children during parental leave (unpaid in those days)  but have no other pension months to show (because I had opted out of the public pension system) and this thread made me wonder whether I could buy a pension claim by paying a lump sum (if I still had any documentation to prove it) even though I think I had to waive that claim when I applied for a widowers pension when my wife died during my parental leave.

So study periods wouldn't even be considered for fulfilling the 60 months minimum requirement for someone who never paid contributions but would be prepared to pay a lumpsum to get a pension (if it would make sense in the first place)?

Heard back from the lawyer after he had a look at the case. He couldn´t see a reason for them not to provide cover. He thinks they assume she had left Germany for good based on the fact that she deregistered (after deregistration staying abroad for longer than 5 years would invalidate cover). Hence, he suggested telling them explicitly that she plans to return to Germany within the 5-year deadline (as indicated by the fact that she keeps renting a flat there) and only sue them if that doesn´t help. Otherwise, they might refuse to cover the legal costs by claiming that they would have provided cover as a matter of course if they had known that, and it therefore wasn´t necessary to take them to court.    

What if the US citizen is a dual citizen and simply ignores his obligation to file a US tax return? How will the European bank/broker even know that he has a US passport (unless he tells them)?