QUOTE (cinzia @ Jul 6 2008, 9:35 pm)

Well, according to (Dem. Senator)
Russ Feingold, that is about to change if the new law passes the Senate:
Well, no, Feingold again:
As for the broad question of who has been "harmed" by the illegal wiretapping ordered by the US government, the broad answer is, we all have. The whole concept that a company should be able to violate a very clear law, such as the original FISA law,
because the President asked it to, is repugnant. Again,
Greenwald just says it better than I could:
QUOTE (cinzia @ Jul 6 2008, 9:35 pm)

I was wondering if the government collected any information on Lee via illegal wiretapping. As it turns out, the original FISA law apparently
did its job in Lee's case:
That's the old law. Looks like it worked in that case.
Wrong:
QUOTE
http://mediamatters.org/items/200601060004"Bellows Report," submitted on May 12, 2000, concluded that the evidence presented by the FBI to the DOJ's Office of Intelligence Policy Review (OIPR) should have resulted in OIPR submitting the application to the FISA court and, ultimately, should have led to the issuance of a FISA warrant:
The final draft FISA application (Draft #3), on its face, established probable cause to believe that Wen Ho Lee was an agent of a foreign power, that is to say, a United States person currently engaged in clandestine intelligence gathering activities for or on behalf of the PRC which activities involved or might involve violations of the criminal laws of the United States [...] Given what the FBI and OIPR knew at the time, it should have resulted in the submission of a FISA application, and the issuance of a FISA order.
http://www.usdoj.gov/ag/readingroom/bellows11a.pdfAdditionally, now you have to agree with me that FISA had nothing to do with the government misconduct in the Lee case- the FBI followed the law in making the FISA request. Note also that if it is possible for the Justice Department to misinterpret the FISA law,
so can other parties. Furthermore, the FISA law is additionally irrelevant to the Lee case because no request was made to the FISA Court for approval for a wiretap since the US Attorney General does not grant the FISA wiretap warrants- the FISA Court does. What Reno apparently did was refuse to even alow the request to be made to the FISA Court (which, as the Bellows panel found, was a decision made in error) thus FISA was not even applied in the Lee case and could not have prevented the actual government misconduct- leaks that violated Lee's privacy rights.
QUOTE
As for the broad question of who has been "harmed" by the illegal wiretapping ordered by the US government, the broad answer is, we all have.
In order to file a civil suit and to receive damages, a plaintiff has to prove that they, not "everyone" was "damaged". The Bill of Rights and the FISA legislation protect individual rights. Again, how have you or any one individual been harmed?
QUOTE
The whole concept that a company should be able to violate a very clear law, such as the original FISA law, because the President asked it to, is repugnant.
To the extent FISA was violated, it was the government that actually violated it. Sue the government- it and its employees don't have immunity. The telecom involvement was tangential.
Every telecom company has in-house lawyers to deal with legal issues such as wiretap requests. No company that cooperated did so "just because Bush asked it to"- its counsel must have deemed the government request(s) legal, and we all know that there are varying opinions on virtually all legal matters anyway, so, no, it's not so clear.
As for Feingold's worries that there is no explict ban on bulk collection of communications to and from the US, has there ever been such an explicit ban in any FISA legislation, including the original? Almost certainly not, not only because it is implicitly banned in the FISA legislation with regards conditions spelled out as to when wiretapping can occur and by the Fourth Amendment.
Two salient examples:
-A US citizen overseas cannot be wiretapped without a FISA warrant (new to the 2008 update)
-The 2008 update expressly prohibits targeting non-US citizens in order to wiretap a US citizen without a warrant
Furthermore, in the original FISA act, no communication to which a US person is "substantially likely" to be a party can be wiretapped without a warrant.
Unless you think the government is going to get a warrant to wiretap everyone's communications to and from the US (obviously too broad to ever be approved) I'd say it's clear that FISA does not permit bulk collection. The requirement of probable cause belies "bulk" collection. How could all communications contain a "probable cause"?
As for doing so without a warrant, obviously you would have to be targeting foreign powers and foreign agents, and it's obvious that not all communications to and from the US involve a foreign power or foreign agents.
Also, cinzia, I point out once again the FISA minimization requirements:
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/usc...----000-.html#hNever mind that it also makes no sense to even try to collect and sift through that much data.
As for the use of data collected in violation of FISA, I state once again that it would be a Fourth Amendment violation, and no, the government could not then use the illegally collected data or and derived from it to prosecute someone. If that information is used to stop a terrorist attack, do you still have a problem with its use? Of course, there has also been the interpretation by the Justice Department that FISA is not to be used for prosecutorial purposes.
BTW, here is the fourth minimization requirement:
QUOTE
notwithstanding paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), with respect to any electronic surveillance approved pursuant to section 1802 (a) of this title, procedures that require that no contents of any communication to which a United States person is a party shall be disclosed, disseminated, or used for any purpose or retained for longer than 72 hours unless a court order under section 1805 of this title is obtained or unless the Attorney General determines that the information indicates a threat of death or serious bodily harm to any person.
The section 1802 to which the fourth minimization requirement refers is the statute that deals with electronic surveillance without a court order:
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/usc...02----000-.htmlNote that section 1801 strictly limits the use of data gathered under section 1802 (and that is for data gathered legally- that gathered illegally would tossed out as a Fourth Amendment violation in any criminal prosecution). Note also that section 1802 clearly says that a requirement for the gathering of data under that section is that "there is no substantial likelihood that the surveillance will acquire the contents of any communication to which a United States person is a party". And the minimization requirements apply. And so on.
Here's the federal statute on civil liability for a FISA violation:
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/usc...10----000-.htmlCinzia, TBH, I think you read Greenwald too much and need to consider sources on the other side of the debate. Beyond the nuts and bolts of the FISA requirements and protections, remember that no legislation supsersedes the Fourth Amendment.